I am really stuck on this calculation problem.
If 1000 mL of an intravenous fluid conatain 2grams of an added antibiotic, how many grains of the antibiotic were administered to a patient who received 1 pint of the fluid? (1grain= 65mg)
Can some come up with the correct answer because I have second guessed myself and just don't know how this 1 is worked out. Thanks!